Questionable Comment in the `useEvent` Example

I found a paragraph from Separating Events from Effects in the beta React Docs, which I couldn't wrap my head around:

In this example, url inside onVisit corresponds to the latest url (which could have already changed), but visitedUrl corresponds to the url that originally caused this Effect (and this onVisit call) to run.

The mentioned example is effectively the one below:

function Page({ url }) {
  const { items } = useContext(ShoppingCartContext);
  const numberOfItems = items.length;

  const onVisit = useEvent(visitedUrl => {
    // `url` captured here is claimed to be the latest, not the original
    // but what about `numberOfItems`?
    logVisit(visitedUrl, numberOfItems);
  });

  // intend to log the `url` that originally caused this Effect, 
  // along with the original `numberOfItems`.
  useEffect(() => {
    setTimeout(() => {
      onVisit(url);
    }, 5000); // Delay logging visits
  }, [url]);

  // ...
}

More essentially, I believe my confusion stems from the claims below:

This solves the problem. Similar to the set functions returned from useState, all Event functions are stable: they never change on a re-render. This is why you can skip them in the dependency list. They are not reactive.

How can Event functions like onVisit are stable, when they need to capture the relevant reactive values like numberOfItems?

Are they stable, but have access to the freshly-constructed anonymous function, which captures the relevant reactive values?

Commencez par l’exemple « Separating Events from Effects » lié dans l’issue et comparez les affirmations concernant la stabilité de useEvent avec les valeurs numberOfItems et url affichées. C’est terminé lorsque la documentation indique clairement quelles valeurs le callback différé observe et explique pourquoi la fonction d’événement peut être omise des dépendances.